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HardWorkingDem Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Sep-26-05 06:46 PM
Original message
Blind trust question...
If I have it right, I understand the reason a person puts investments into a blind trust is to remove any possibility of committing any action that might benefit the investments and avoid the appearance of impropriety or wrongdoing.

My question is, if so, then is it the responsibility of the investment manager to make decisions in regards to those investments? For example, if the manager sees there is trouble ahead, is he or she responsible for making decisions that would limit a person's investments, like selling or moving money around without the investor's knowledge?
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bryant69 Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Sep-26-05 06:48 PM
Response to Original message
1. It would probably depend on the structure of the trust?
I would guess. In this case one would hope that there would be very little control on behalf of Mr. Frist, but that evidently wasn't the case.

Bryant
Check it out --> http://politicalcomment.blogspot.com
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rzemanfl Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Sep-26-05 06:48 PM
Response to Original message
2. Frist's trust was "blind" like Jamie Foxx was blind because he was
playing Ray Charles.
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elehhhhna Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Sep-26-05 06:55 PM
Response to Original message
3. Short answer: yes
The trustee manages the dough, PERIOD.

Seems the trust assets are not "blinded" if one dissolves one trust and places the assets in another--so changing trustees regularly defies the entire concept.

Frist is a thieving lying cheating video-diagnosing shitbag.
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