This post has gotten very long. Also I probably repeat myself, but rather than spend even more time trying to edit it down, I'm just going to leave it.
Of course, that raises a problem for the "more guns => more death" hypothesis, in that (as I keep pointing out, and you have not seen fit to dispute) the evidence for this hypothesis consists entirely of findings from the very kind of studies that are ill-equipped to control for other variables. This is precisely why their findings need to be replicated by more rigorous types of studies; no amount of futzing with the numbers in an effort to control for variables can do the job as effectively as eliminating a variable by eliminating it from your control group beforehand, which is only possible in prospective studies. That is, the kind of study which those public health researchers who focus on firearms-related issues have yet to perform (and always will have yet to perform if past performance is any indication).
First off, I have addressed exactly this point right here:
The much larger point here is that even if we were to completely accept the NRA line here, it would hardly dent the evidence that, at a societal level "more guns = more death", because, as Kellerman surely would acknowledge, these studies are a small part of the overall picture. Since the Kellerman talking points are so pervasive, I suppose it is only natural that you would try to paint the entire body of gun research with the same brush. The problem is, much of the research occurs outside the exposure/disease paradigm, thus rendering your criticisms not only incorrect, but also entirely irrelevant. Your platitude about "how scientific progress is made" notwithstanding, the most appropriate vehicle to further scientific knowledge actually depends (obviously) on the question being investigated. Sometimes it's a RCT, a particle accelerator, or an archeological dig, other times just a computer and some data, and still other times, a whiteboard alone will do.
I'll elaborate. Your critiques are only applicable to case-control studies which show that, at an individual level, owning or carrying a gun increases risk of being a gun violence victim. However, despite your empty assertion that the evidence is "entirely" of this sort, the majority is not. As I pointed out above, even if we were to concede that owning a gun does not actually increase your individual risk of getting shot, that doesn't affect the societal link. And, despite your denials, a lot of the evidence does come from social scientists.
For example, consider the various
cross-sectional studies showing that higher gun ownership rates result in higher homicide and/or suicide rates. These are indeed properly controlled, and they cannot possibly by made prospective in any normal sense because they are not even claiming a link at an individual level, nor do they rely on such a link for their results to hold. Here, your critiques just make no sense at all.
Also, you have yet to make a cogent argument as to why even the case-control studies aren't correctly controlled -- instead you simply say, for example, that the claims of having controlled for a criminal record "ring hollow". That means precisely nothing. Of course it rings hollow to you -- that's because you don't like the conclusions. Is there anything more? Because case-control studies with multivariate regressions are not any kind of exotic newfangled statistical chicanery. The fact that you personally don't understand how these things work doesn't mean they are just "futzing with numbers". It is indeed possible to control for confounding variables, and pretty much all the case-control studies on guns were indeed controlled for pretty much all of the variables that pro-gun people falsely claim were not controlled for (criminal record, drug use, etc.).
And then there's your insistence that all evidence is void until a prospective study is done. I find myself doubting whether you really understand of observational study designs and their attributes. The reason prospective studies are preferred is not, as you suggest, because you can control for confounding variables by eliminating people from the study group beforehand -- you can do that retrospectively just as easily. The main advantages of prospective over retrospective studies is due to the quality of data you can collect -- e.g. recall issues. Moreover, prospective studies also need to be controlled for confounding factors, generally using the same statistical techniques that you seem to distrust.
You also are fond of insinuating that the reason no prospective study has been done is that people fear the results. But also serious practical considerations. For example, consider what it would it would take to examine the link between gun ownership and homicide victimization in a prospective cohort study. Since the homicide rate is around 5/100,000, in order to get some reasonable number of homicides (say 500) within some reasonable time frame (say 10 years), you'd need 1 million people to be enrolled, which to my knowledge would make this the largest such study ever conducted.
And even if you did that, people like you would still complain about confounding and causality. That's because, no kind of observational study -- case-control or prospective cohort or whatever -- can, in principle, establish causality. For causality, researchers must be able to change things exogenously, which is only possible in with an experimental design, such as a clinical trial. In the current context, what that would mean is that the researchers would actually have to decide which households must keep guns and which must not. Aside from massive ethical problems, even this wouldn't work, because households assigned guns who don't want them could easily "disown" the gun, by, say never buying bullets and dismantling the gun and keeping it in a safe where nobody knows the combination, etc.
In the end, your insistence on prospective studies seems not to be founded in solid understanding of different study designs and their advantages and disadvantages. Rather, it is mostly just an excuse to ignore the evidence that is out there, as well as to engage in one of your favorite activities, which is attacking the integrity of anyone who has done research on gun violence that does not support your pre-existing bias.
Because if there are other demographic and socio-economic forces at work that influence levels of violent crime (including homicide) and suicide, then why should we assume that it will be more cost-effective to tighten restrictions on private gun ownership than to address some of those other forces? How would we determine that increased gun control is even having a positive effect at all? The very fact that the gun control lobby has resorted to phrases like "if saves just one life, it'll be worth it" is an admission that they at least don't think it is possible to tell (much as it would be in their interest for it to be possible).
The totality of the evidence indicates that reducing gun availability will, on average, reduce homicide. Obviously, we should also address the other forces -- poverty, etc. It's not an either/or thing. Nobody is saying that we should only address guns.
Measuring the effect of specific laws on crime rates is always tricky, not just with gun control laws, but with anything. In fact, this is a general problem with social policy -- it's much more difficult to be strictly "science-based" or "evidence-based" than in approving drugs because there's no way to perform controlled experiments on all of society. For example, if you institute policies to reduce poverty, it could easily be the case that poverty fails to go down even if your policies were effective -- say that economic downturn struck, and without the new policy, poverty would have risen even more. Moreover, as with gun ownership, even if you reduce poverty, that's still no guarantee that crime is going to drop. In fact, poverty has gone up during the GWBush decade, while crime has dropped. Does that mean there's no link between the two? Of course not.
Having said that, the actual hard evidence on guns is actually much stronger than for most other social policy areas -- economics or healthcare, for example. There is no hard-science quality evidence that most environmental laws help the environment, nor that minimum wage laws improve worker's lives, etc. I'm pretty confident that cutting medicare won't create jobs, but there's never been a prospective cohort study supporting that opinion, nor will there ever be. Instead, you make decisions using the best available evidence, and logical reasoning on top of that. Any standard of evidence that allows you to justifiable advocate for these policies (and basically any others) will easily imply support for certain stricter gun laws.
But the "more guns => more death" hypothesis is founded on some extremely questionable premises, not least that an overwhelming percentage of homicides is committed by "regular" individuals with no notable prior history of violent behavior who happened to have a firearm available to them "in a fit of rage." To put it bluntly, this is a fabrication, a myth, albeit a particularly persistent one.
No, actually what you are describing is the favorite straw man of the pro-gun crowd. I challenge you to find a single respected pro-control researcher who has said anything like "an overwhelming percentage of homicides is committed by "regular" individuals with no notable prior history of violent behavior". You won't, unless you radically change the meaning of either "overwhelming" or "notable".
I might add that I don't dispute that there are demonstrable correlations between violent crime and firearms; where I have doubts is that the number of firearms, or the number of people who own them, is a significant causal factor in violent crime. When people prone to violent and/or criminal behavior feel they need firearms, they will acquire them and use them, and you'll see a resultant increase in firearm violence, much like parts of western Europe have been seeing over the past 15 or so years.
OK, at least you don't dispute the correlation. That's a good start -- and indeed, many studies have confirmed the fact that in areas with higher gun ownership rates, there are higher homicide rates, even after controlling for various potential confounding factors.
And the evidence for causality is also pretty strong. Actually, the argument you make is not even the best one the pro-gun side has. This is because the number of violent criminals as a percentage of the population is very low, and thus increases in gun ownership by criminals alone would make very little difference to overall ownership rates. If the only link between homicide and gun ownership were due to more criminals arming themselves, you wouldn't get the kind of significant correlations that you find, for example, from examining county-by-county data in the US.
No, the best argument against causality is that people go out and buy guns when crime rates go up, for self-defense. And, while surely this is true to an extent, there are ways to test whether this effect might actually be responsible for a significant part of the observed correlation. For example, if this were true, then you would also find a correlation between gun ownership and other kinds of crime -- burglary, robbery, etc. But you don't. At least not anywhere near as strong as the correlation with homicide. This gives considerable support to the instrumentality argument -- gun availability doesn't result in more crime in general, but it does results in more homicides, specifically because gun availability makes other crimes and disputes more lethal.
>The solution is to take a rigorous, statistical, scientific approach to studying the issue. <...> Yet you dismiss them as "crappy studies", and no doubt you will continue to do so.
Indeed. I cannot improve upon the words of Ted Goertzel, professor of sociology at Rutgers, when he stated that:
There are, in fact, no important findings in sociology or criminology that cannot be communicated to journalists and policy makers who lack graduate degrees in econometrics.
Or, for that matter, public health policy. As I noted above, I found Lott's conclusions hard to accept, precisely because he had to crunch such a massive volume of data to produce the findings on which he based his conclusion, and I'm not inclined to defer to statistical one-upmanship from the other side either, especially when it produces results that strain credulity
It's not that the findings are hard to communicate. Also, John Lott was wrong because his research was actually flawed, not because it was complex (there are a
lot of
issues with John Lott and his research). And, actually, in the grand scheme of things, the research on gun violence is really not so complex -- certainly not nearly on the scale of, say, climate models.
What I was responding to in that sentence was your claim that because the number of guns and CCW permits increased while crime dropped, that makes it impossible to believe that gun availability causes more homicide. This has nothing to do with "statistical one-upsmanship", I'm just saying be scientific about things -- perform various kinds of studies, look more closely at the data at a county-by-county level, etc. -- rather than just drawing a broad conclusion from crude observations. As I pointed out above, for example, poverty has increased the last decade while crime has dropped. That proves nothing except for the fact that even if two variables are linked, it is quite possible that over a certain period of time, one will go up, and another will go down.
In any case, a lot of scientific research has been done, but what happens is that pro-gun advocates don't like it, so they come up with completely bogus arguments claiming to "refute" the research (for example, the arguments you have been making). These arguments generally do not appear in peer-reviewed journals, and people with expertise will typically be to see right through them. But, to lay audiences, particularly lay audiences who don't like the conclusions of said research, it is very easy to simply accept these refutations without thinking twice, because superficially they sound convincing.
For example, let's look at the two studies you critique in your last post.
Take, again, the 2009 study by Branas et al.:
First of all, note that this is yet another example of collaboration between public health researchers and at least one social scientist. Whatever the exact rules were for that silly challenge of yours, it remains a fact that this sort of thing happens all the time. But I digress.
from a study population of shooting victims, in which those carrying a firearm about or close to their persons when they were shot are outnumbered by those not carrying almost 16 to 1, they manage to produce a conclusion that those carrying were 4.5 times as likely to be shot as those who weren't, it is perfectly reasonable to react with incredulity. Again, compare this to Richard Doll's findings that, among lung cancer patients, smokers outnumbered non-smokers 9 to 1.
And so the misleading begins. This is actually a
case control study. For those that don't know what this means (a group that seems to include you), that means the study population does not include just shooting victims. Actually it includes both shooting victims (cases) and non-shooting victims (controls) matched to the cases at random, but controlled for various factors. The 4.5 ratio is not directly computed from the ratio of carrying/not carrying from the shooting victims. It also takes into account the fraction of controls that are carrying. You make it sound like some kind of voodoo, but the statistical techniques here are not particularly controversial. And really, it's a little odd that you so misunderstood the way this study worked, because it's right there in the abstract:
Methods. We enrolled 677 case participants that had been shot in an assault and 684 population-based control participants within Philadelphia, PA, from 2003 to 2006. We adjusted odds ratios for confounding variables.
Richard Doll's famous study was also a case control study, and, again, the fact that smokers outnumbered non-smokers by 9-to-1 among the cases was not the key finding. Just as important was the fact that among controls (who did not have lung cancer), the fraction of smokers was lower. The link between smoking and cancer was determined by comparing the ratio among cases and controls.
And your "incredulity" here is pretty much baseless -- there seems to be no real reason that the 4.5 ratio is hard to believe, other than that you don't like it. I would say that any ratio between (say) 0.1 and 10 could be plausible, because on one hand, maybe a gun is a useful self-defense tool, and on the other, maybe carrying a gun results in much more frequent escalation of what would otherwise be non-shooting incidents. In fact, maybe it could be even more than 10 or less than 0.1 -- I say we do a study and figure it out. What say you?
But the fundamental reason I dismiss the public health research overall as "crappy" is because in study after study, the researchers establish a correlation but do not establish that a causal relationship exists or, even granting that it does, which way it runs (i.e. they do not account for the possibility that individuals who consider themselves at high risk of criminal assault, particularly due to their involvement in illicit activity, will acquire a firearm as a result) and then write their conclusions as if they had. As I've noted in posts responding to yours, Branas et al. acknowledged that they "did not account for the potential of reverse causation between gun possession and gun assault" (e.g. being a drug dealer is what makes you likely to get shot by competitors, and drug dealers carry guns because of that), but they buried that admission in the article itself; you sure as hell wouldn't gather it from reading the conclusions or abstract, let alone the (non-peer-reviewed) press release.
Wrong again. Actually the account I gave above of case-control studies is oversimplified. After the matching of cases and controls, the rates of a whole bunch of auxiliary variables are measured for both groups. Then a multivariate regression is performed, in which these possible confounding variables are controlled for. This happened both for the Branas study and for the Doll study. And, even if there were a prospective cohort study, you would still have to control for possible confounding variables in a very similar way. This is not "futzing with numbers" -- it's standard practice, and there's nothing weird or underhanded about it.
Just to be clear, it is true that causation does not generally imply correlation. However, in this particular study, many of the possible sources of reverse causation or confounding have indeed been controlled for, including the example you bring up -- being involved with illicit activity. In fact, not only was the study was controlled for arrest record, it was also controlled for many other things such as drug involvement at the time of the shooting, being in a high-risk neighborhood at the time of shooting, etc (see table 1 of the study). This means that, contrary to your assertion, the fact that people with a criminal record are more likely both to carry a gun and also to be victims of homicide -- this would not contribute to the 4.5 ratio. Also, the fact that people are more likely to carry guns when they travel in high-drug neighborhoods, and also more likely to be shot there, that was controlled for as well. As was the fact that people involved with drugs at any specific moment in time are more likely to be carrying a gun at that time, and also more likely to be shot at that time -- this too was controlled for and would not contribute to the ratio.
So, if there was confounding or reverse causation, it would have to be something that did not register with the control variables. This is still possible, but most of the examples you would come up with would have in fact been controlled for.
Moreover, if you actually read the conclusions, your claim that they "write their conclusions as if they had" established a causal relationship is clearly false. Here's the conclusion:
On average, guns did not protect those who possessed them from being shot in an assault. Although successful defensive gun uses occur each year, the probability of success may be low for civilian gun users in urban areas. Such users should reconsider their possession of guns or, at least, understand that regular possession necessitates careful safety countermeasures. Suggestions to the contrary, especially for urban residents who may see gun possession as a surefire defense against a dangerous environment, should be discussed and thoughtfully reconsidered.
Unlike your caricature conclusion, this is quite mild, and very well supported by the data. The authors most certainly do not claim that, for all people, carrying a gun increases risk of assault. If anything, a stronger conclusion is warranted, particularly in light of the fact that this is far from the only such study with similar findings.
OK, next...
Similarly, with Kellermann's 1998 study "Injuries and deaths due to firearms in the home" (Journal of Trauma 45:263-267), you had to dig deep to discover that of assaultive shootings studied, 67.3% were known to have been committed with a firearm known not to have been kept in the household in which the shooting occurred. When you title your study "Injuries and deaths due to firearms in the home," and you then include instances of shootings committed using firearms brought in from outside, that's just rank dishonesty, both intellectually and otherwise.
Yet again, it's pretty easy to see you are talking nonsense:
RESULTS: During the study interval (12 months in Memphis, 18 months in Seattle, and Galveston) 626 shootings occurred in or around a residence. This total included 54 unintentional shootings, 118 attempted or completed suicides, and 438 assaults/homicides. Thirteen shootings were legally justifiable or an act of self-defense, including three that involved law enforcement officers acting in the line of duty. For every time a gun in the home was used in a self-defense or legally justifiable shooting, there were four unintentional shootings, seven criminal assaults or homicides, and 11 attempted or completed suicides.
CONCLUSIONS: Guns kept in homes are more likely to be involved in a fatal or nonfatal accidental shooting, criminal assault, or suicide attempt than to be used to injure or kill in self-defense.
So let's check it out. The number 626 is the total number of shootings in or around the residence. The authors don't ever claim that all of these shootings make use of a gun kept in the home (obviously). Nor would anyone expect this to be the case, given that less than half of homes actually contain guns. Then the authors go on to break down the shootings in terms of types. So far pretty harmless.
Then comes the actual key numbers which are the ratios for different kinds of shootings using a gun kept in the home. And it is very easy to see that these ratios are not computed using the full set of shootings.
For example, there are 13 acts of self-defense, and 438 assaults/homicides. Now, if, as you suggest, the full set of shootings were used to compute the ratios, then we would end up with a ratio of 438/13 = 36.7. But the actual ratio they give is just 7-to-1, which I can only assume is the correct ratio when you restrict the analysis to just shootings using the gun in the home. Without looking at the paper, this seems to make sense -- assuming the line-of-duty shootings used an external gun, we know there are at most 10 self-defense shootings using the gun in the home. So that would imply at most 70 assault shootings with the gun in the home, which is 16% of all assault shootings, which leaves plenty of room for the fact that 67% are known to be external guns. The ratio for accidents and suicides also make sense, given that one would expect accidental and suicide shootings to be much more likely to use the gun in the home.
So, all in all, everything seems to check out just fine, this is once again much ado about nothing, and the only "rank dishonesty" here is on your part, falsely accusing the researchers of underhanded data manipulations which very clearly did not take place. I'm guessing you read about this somewhere on some pro-gun blog and never bothered to verify any of this for yourself.
And you are far from the first person to have done this.