Article 1
1. All peoples have the right of self-determination. By virtue of that right they freely determine their political status and freely pursue their economic, social and cultural development.
Under that, wouldn't the States that became the Confederate
States of America have been legally able to seceed?The "legally" bit of it I'll leave aside, since there was not actually any "law" that governed at that time, and there seldom is now. Canada, of course, is the exception: there is now federal legislation ("The Clarity Act") setting out the conditions on which Quebec may secede from Canada.
Would the confederate states have been able to found a claim to a right of secession on the Covenant?
*IF* the population of those states constituted "a people": maybe.
I don't know how familiar you are with contemporary thought in this area. It's rather complex, of course. In addition to the above "if", there are things like: IF the territory they claim is not subject to a legitimate claim by another "people", that sort of thing.
There are peoples within peoples, i.e. more than one within the same geographic territory, that being probably the more common situation. The African-American population of the confederate states could probably have advanced just as legitimate a claim to some self-government arrangement. Just as the First Nations of Canada are doing, with some success, today.
A mere claim to be a people and thus entitled to exercise the right of self-determination doesn't make a group a people.
And an attempt to secede may not be a legitimate exercise of the right at all. I'd say that it is more often a power grab by an indigenous élite, which is what legitimate liberation struggles most often seem to degenerate into. The Parti Québécois leadership, for instance, is really just the local economic élite these days, as was the leadership of the US's revolution -- looking to run their own show without another élite's interference, not really acting in the interests of "the people" in the exercise of their right to self-determination.
I may have referred you to the Supreme Court of Canada's decision in
Reference re Secession of Quebec. That's how we do things here of course: in the courts. ;)
http://www.lexum.umontreal.ca/csc-scc/en/pub/1998/vol2/html/1998scr2_0217.htmlBackground on the process:
http://canada.justice.gc.ca/en/ps/const/bck2.htmlhttp://www.cric.ca/en_html/guide/supremecourt/supremecourt.htmlI had to read a lot of the background material submitted to the Court in that case -- experts' reports on the state of Cdn and international law on the subject -- which was actually a lot more interesting and worth reading than the decision itself. Not easily accessible publicly, I don't think. ... Ah, here are a couple of things on line -- the AG's submissions only, unfortunately.
http://canada.justice.gc.ca/en/ps/const/crarpt.doc(Quebec itself refused to participate in the reference, so an amicus was appointed to represent its interests.)
http://canada.justice.gc.ca/en/ps/const/renvoi.htmlhttp://canada.justice.gc.ca/en/ps/const/replyqa5.htmlhttp://canada.justice.gc.ca/en/news/nr/1997/factum/question2.html(I don't know where the first part of that one is.)
http://canada.justice.gc.ca/en/news/nr/1997/factum/factum.docThe answer comes down to: local law governs, since there is no enforceable international law.
The Canadian and Belgian systems of government, for instance, involve attempts to recognize the right to self-determination of the various peoples within the federations. The right to self-determination does not necessarily imply the right to a separate state.