FREE TRADE, GLOBALIZATION, & COMPARATIVE ADVANTAGE
It appears many economists have used the "comparative advantage" doctrine to justify free trade. Many simplified economic texts give a very simple explanation of the theory. Unfortunately, they omit one of the essential requirements -- that capital and resources can NOT be internationally mobile. I will delve into this in more detail below.
Free trade advocates are like a religious cult. Their advocacy is based on pre-conceived theory with little regard for actual reality. They just keep chanting "free trade is good. Free trade is good. Free trade is good." Some economic theories are based on a carefully selected set of facts and concepts, while completely ignoring others. In addition, the application of some of these theories does not work in reality. This also seems to be ignored. The benefits of unrestricted free trade, along with unrestricted free flow of capital, is one such phantom belief.
The argument frequently used is that of "comparative advantage." Modern economists often ignore one important aspect of this theory. It requires that CAPITAL AND LABOR CANNOT BE INTERNATIONALLY MOBILE.
Let me repeat this. In order for the "Comparative Advantage" theory to work, CAPITAL AND LABOR CANNOT BE INTERNATIONALLY MOBILE.
Here is the quote from Paul Craig Roberts article regarding David Ricardo's original Comparative Advantage theory:
"For comparative advantage to reign, two conditions are necessary:..."
"The other necessary condition is that capital and labor (factors of production) cannot be internationally mobile..."
The following is the link to the article:
http://www.mises.org/fullstory.aspx?control=1420&id=64(note: I am NOT an advocate of the "mises" site. I disagree with much, if not most of what they say. I simply found this article by Paul Craig Roberts at the site. But I AM an advocate of Paul Craig Roberts, however.)
It truly is amazing that economists constantly regurgitate the free trade mantra, and attempt to support it by misapplying the "comparative advantage" theory.
A big problem with some economists is that they "miss the forest for the trees." They often develop complicated mathematical equations to explain theories that don't make any sense. It's almost as if they try to prove mathematically that the sky is red, instead of blue. Then they ignore the fact that most non-economists agree that the sky is actually blue.
I'm going to take a stab at disproving the benefits of unrestricted "free" trade, using a simple equation -- the GDP equation. I think economists will agree that it goes as folloows:
GDP=Consumption+Invstmt+GovSpending+TradeBalance
If applied globally, "trade balance" should be zero (unless Martians are buying some of our goods.) Therefore, this should be the "global" GDP equation:
GlobalGDP=GlobalConsumption.+GlobaInvestmnt+GlobalGovtSpending
Economists state that consumer spending, or consumption, is 2/3 of all economic activity. Thus, global consumption is 2/3 of all global economic activity. It's the generally accepted consensus that consumer income is the biggest determinant of consumer spending. Logically, it is essentially the only long-term determinant of consumption. (Consumption financed by borrowing cannot last indefinitely) Thus, global income is the biggest determinant of global GDP. If the aggregate loss of American wages is not compensated for by aggregate foreign wage increase, global income goes down. So does global GDP.
How does global income decrease affect the remaining factors? Let's start with global investment. Global investment will not make any real contribution to GDP if global consumer spending declines. Increased investment is supposed to increase production. If global income falls, so does global demand for production. If global demand falls, there is NO benefit to increased investment. There is no need to build more production facilities or provide more services, if there is no demand for them. Excess "investment" would simply go into corporate coffers, in the form of CEO salaries, stock holder dividends, "cash-on-hand" and bank accounts. In actual reality, as opposed to economists' "pseudo-reality," this investment would add absolutely 0 to global GDP in the long-term. (It's mis-allocated money that would have contributed to global GDP, if it had it gone toward global consumer spending.)
How about government spending? Government spending is financed exclusively from taxes. Taxes subtract directly from private wealth. Thus, government spending reduces private wealth, dollar-per-dollar. However, the "marginal propensity to consume" concept needs to be considered here. ( Which basically states that the more affluent devote a smaller percentage of their wealth towards consumption. The more affluent they are, the smaller the percentage.) Taxes on lower income individuals reduce consumption more than those on higher income individuals. Taxes directed mainly at consumers, such as sales tax, reduce consumption spending dollar-for-dollar. In contrast, taxes on corporations primarily reduce investment spending. Thus, the type of taxation affects how much it subtracts from consumer spending. But it is clear that government spending subtracts significantly from consumer spending. In addition, reduced consumer income reduces the money availabe for taxation. Government spending cannot make up for consumer spending reduction. Not only does it depend on consumer income, it subtracts from consumer spending.
In summary, the global GDP equation is almost overwhelmingly dependent on global consumer income. Labor cost reductions reduce global income, and global GDP. When $90/day workers are replaced with $2/day workers, global consumer income drops. Global consumer spending then drops as well, further reducing global demand for goods and services. The increased profits made from the labor cost reduction do NOT help the world economy. The increased investment capital that results has NO benefit when global consumption drops. It merely provides a short-term gain in profits, at the expense of a long-term loss in global GDP. Unfortunately, many economists DO have a blindspot to this simple mathematical reality.
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