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I recognize that my view is merely my interpretation (with a fair bit of tinfoil-hattery) of what was a rising economic showdown between Great Britain and Germany/Austrio-Hungary. With Germany allied with Austrio-Hungary as well the Ottoman Turks, Britain and France would have been at a severe economic disadvantage. The infamous Constantinople-Baghdad Railway to extend the Oriental Express, which had it's financing agreed upon by the major powers, would have greatly reduced the influence of the Suez canal. Germany was preparing to finance mondernization of the Ottoman economy just prior to the outbreak of the war. This would have had severe implications on Britain's position in Persia and would place their refining facilities in Abadan at risk long term (IMHO on that one).
Franz Ferdinand's death was simply at the right time, providing the cassus belli needed by all involved to commence what was to be an economic showdown over who was to have the controlling stake in global resources and access to them. Basically an extention of what as near as I can tell is the eternal battle for control over the middle east. Austrio-Hungary was blocking Russia's access to warm water, (especially with an alliance with the Ottomans), France and England had much to fear from Germany gaining access to oil from the middle east that could not be controlled via the Suez Canal.
I understand the stated reasons the powers had for going to war, I just deny that core reason each power went to war was for their publicly stated reasons. Sure Belgium is a lovely country, but did Great Britain get involved solely because Germany invaded Belgium as part of the Schlieffen Plan, or because Great Britain recognized that Germany was to be their primary opponent economically in the coming century, and that by golly, with Russia in the east all pissed off over Austrio-Hungarian efforts to suppress the revolts in the Balkans, wouldn't this be a fine dandy time to take them out now. Oh yeah, and liberate the lowlands as well.
Russia's concern in the war of course was not oil nor access to the middle east. I think I'd have to be waaay off the deep end to think that. Of course Russia was still a tad angry about the Crimean war, and with the countries that sheltered that Tartars.
And France? Well that ones obvious. An invasion plus a stewing anger over Alsace was the real reason, so I think Frances stated reasons for involvement in the war are easily the most honest and clear.
So I guess in a round about way, while I'm not saying Iraqi oil per se was the cause. I should probably refine my statement that the main reason England, Germany, The Ottomans and perhaps, to a small degree the Americans entered the war was economic, a very large part of that being access to the oil wealth in the Middle East (not Iraq specifically), and while everyone I'm sure felt terrible about Franz Ferdinand and the plight of the Belgians and the Serbians (not), these official stated reasons for the war are, well bollocks IMHO.
I'm not sure why other people think this way, but the main reason why I became interested in WWI was in my reading on WWII. Since the Treaty of Versailles played a large role in the events leading up to WWII, I naturally started reading history backwards from WWII to WWI.
Does this make sense? Hopefully I'm not coming off as too much of a nutjob!
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