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I've been saying this in every forum here where somebody says we need "absolute proof" of election fraud, or "where's the proof?" But nobody seems to listen--or else they're just so demoralized by the political scene--the Democrats' lack of interest and will--that they can't see the truth of this. That is, they are demoralized because no one in power will ASSERT the truth of this.
First of all, outside of the legal paradigm, we have NEVER NEEDED "absolute proof." The election system was a fraud going in (secret source code, no paper trail, insecure, hackable computers, controlled by partisan pro-Bush companies), and ON TOP of those inherent, extremely fraud-prone conditions, we now have a MOUNTAIN of inferential or circumstantial evidence of a wrong result. Conclusion: The election was INVALID.
You don't have to prove fraud to prove that the election was INVALID--an election that is so non-transparent and yields such suspicious results that it cannot be trusted.
In any other democratic country in the world, there would be a re-vote (as in the Ukraine). But the fascists have gone so far in seizing power here (they control the presidency, the Congress, the courts, the military, the intelligence apparatus, the media AND the election system), and the country's power structure is so conservative (no obvious mechanism for a re-vote, or for a national citizen referendum or recall, or vote of no confidence) that nobody who understands how invalid this election was can think of a way to remedy it.
Even the few House/Senate members who objected on Jan. 6 mostly objected on the grounds of Ohio's obvious racist vote suppression (a violation of the Voting Rights Act of 1965), and NOT on the invalidity of the election due to, a) fraudulent conditions, and b) a mountain of evidence that fraud occurred.
And we see how far THEY got. The BushCons ridiculed it and shut it down. (And the Democratic leadership had sabotaged it from the beginning, by disallowing any claim that the election result was wrong or that there was widespread fraud outside of Ohio.)
In any real democracy, the Electors of at least 20 states would have been strongly challenged on Jan.6, and there would not only be a thorough Congressional investigation going on (and no inauguration pending), there would be investigations and legal and political actions occurring against every Secretary of State who permitted non-transparency and private ownership of the secret source code that tabulates all our votes.
So that's where we are politically--nowhere. (Why this is so--for instance, what's wrong with the Democratic leadership, a real puzzle--is another discussion.)
Now then, as for a court case--as opposed to a political case--I asked a lawyer about this, early on, and he said that statistical evidence is used, and is acceptable in court, in cases of financial fraud where the evidence has been shredded. Statistical analysis like that conducted by so many experts, and by statistically adept bloggers, on the 2004 election results, has been used for financial fraud prosecution and conviction.
I hadn't thought of the tobacco litigation. This is a brilliant analogy--a very similar situation where there was no "smoking gun" (ahem...) but where statistics proved intent and harm.
(Note: I'm not a lawyer, but have experience as a paralegal in public interest lawsuits, and studied Constitutional law in college.)
I think we (or rather a lawyer team) needs to ask:
What the harm is? (harder to establish than harm from tobacco, or bank fraud)
Who the perps are? (Diebold, or the Secretary of State who bought Diebold's crap?)
(Note: CA SoS Kevin Shelley sued Diebold for lying about their machines, I believe--for alleging security or certification where there was none.)
What laws have been violated? (say, provisions of state code intent sections that assert intent to have transparent elections??)
Which elections and which voters constitute the class? (Prez, Senate, local? All races and measures on the ballot? Only electronic voters? Were absentee ballots scanned and tabulated by Diebold (or other such) central electronic vote tabulators?)
(The Constitution gives the states the responsibility of choosing the presidential electors. The states can do this however they wish--no popular election is required, although most now do it by popular election. So, the state/federal interface is different for presidential vs. other elections, because of the Electoral College, i.e., what responsibility does the state have to conduct a fair and honest and transparent election for presidential Electors? --and, how did HAVA impact that state responsibility, for instance, by requiring conversion to electronic voting, or bribing the states with money?)
How do the lawsuits in Ohio (and any others that have been filed on '04) tackle these questions? (Arnebeck/Alliance for Democracy did a broadbased action on behalf of a group of voters; just withdrew it from state court, and is to be re-filed in fed court, I believe, possibly on Voting Rights Act and Civil Rights Act violations; don't know how broad it will be. John Kerry filed an action in support of the Greens effort in Ohio to preserve evidence--the "black boxes." What's the status of that? Etc.)
Some thoughts on harm: An interesting issue. Aside from the serious harm that Bush is inflicting on us all, what is the specific harm to a voter? I think having an illegitimate government--even if that has real impacts--is too broad an allegation. Also, the election having been stolen--comparable to bank fraud (defrauded depositors and investors?)--is probably too broad (and it's just as well not having to do the "smoking gun" thing--"absolute proof" of election fraud). But there is considerable evidence of more votes than voters (dilution of one's vote), votes changed from Kerry to Bush (electronically), and Kerry votes simply shaved off (given to Bush, or disappeared)--in short, votes diluted or changed or not counted. (There are always a few votes that go uncounted in most elections, for various reasons--that issue will have to be dealt with.)
Harm to voters from a fraudulent election may be a special category of harm that will have to be established (which may be hard to do with the current BushCon Supreme Court). Can there be harm when there is a choice? Nobody's forcing you to vote! However, it's just not the same as buying a car or a pack of cigarettes (both of which can involve liability for the seller). It's even more fundamental than your right to safety or protection from false advertising. It's a choice, yes, but it's also a citizen's most fundamental and important DUTY. (Could an SoS's touting voting--encouraging people to vote--make them more liable? Curious idea!)
The Voting Rights Act of 1965: Passed to remedy disenfranchisement of black voters--but could it ALSO apply to ANY category of voter who is systematically disenfranchised--in this case, all Democratic voters, or all Kerry voters (some Republicans voted for Kerry)???
Legal cases like this have many purposes, beyond simply winning, redressing specific harm, or getting big awards. They are also intended to force (or inspire) reform, and to educate the public and public officials. It would be no bad deal to force the Supreme Court to rule on the disenfranchisement of a broad class comprised of anti-Bush voters. THAT would be worth the publicity, no matter how they ruled!
This is presuming a federal court case on the issue of disenfranchisement in the 2004 presidential election (which might go federal, by way of appeal, even if it's filed in state courts). What other ways are there to go? (state court? specific state rules or constitution violated? all races, all measures on the ballot?).
I keep thinking, too, about the secret source code, and no paper trail. There must be something in state constitutions about open and fair elections.
And one other thing: What about those Wally O'Dell (and other) $100,000 contributions to Bush/Cheney? It seems like egregious conflict of interest. Are there no state or federal conflict of interest laws that have been violated? RICO also comes to mind--a nationwide racket to sell an inherently fraudulent election system to the states. Also, Diebold was throwing a lot of money around, wining and dining election officials and congress critters--are Democrats also vulnerable to corruption charges? Is THAT why--or one of the reasons why--they are so inexplicably silent on this very fraudulent election?
This is getting far afield of a class action on harm to voters, but this is an unusual situation and requires creative thinking. I don't think there is any precedent for it--even though I can--and I'm sure many others can--FEEL the harm. It's palpable. And it cries out for litigation and remedy.
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