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A person pointed out that the first attestation of a word in language X was in something like 1450. How, then could it be borrowed from language Y?
The professor said that the first attestion of a word is the latest that language X could have borrowed or innovated the word. That it wasn't mentioned in older texts might well have been because they had little to do with the kinds of subjects that would entail use of the term. Or it might have been because the language innovation had occurred hundreds of miles to the west and it took time for the term to make its way from the language border to a town that had any sort of text production. Or it may simply have failed to be mentioned because it was a low-class term, or a novel, trendy term, or because writers simply preferred a synonym.
In Russian there are words attested only in the 1700s that are Proto-Indo-European and have distinctive Common Slavic sound changes. The words were there when Russian was a dialect of Slavic, when Slavic was a dialect of Balto-Slavic (if you think that was an actual language), when Balto-Slavic was a dialect of Indo-European and before, back to 4000 BC or earlier. Then there are borrowings from Germanic that show up in the earliest texts, from c. 1100. Most Bible scholars' logic would argue that the borrowings from Germanic, an Indo-European dialect, must predate Proto-Indo-European itself because they tend to think of date of first attestation as meaning "approximate date of innovation." Then there's surprised when a new datum causes them to revise their ideas, mostly because they didn't consider all the uncertainty in their ideas to begin with. Faith, my son, is not just for belief systems masquerading as religions.
The only thing you know from seeing a word first attested in 1450 is that it existed in 1450, and usually before that. Same with the "origins of our faith." Many themes in the OT or NT are similar to texts that are far older. The problem is whether precedence in attestation is precedence in innovation: The only thing you know from having something in the OT is that it was written down in something close to final form in 650 BC, and probably existed in textual form for a few centuries before that. How long before *that* it existed in oral form is anybody's guess.
In other words, since the OT narrative ostensibly starts in Assyria, that narrative may be as old as any other from that narrative. It may be older. It may be younger. The point is, you can't tell from first attestation in a given tradition, esp. one that crucially relies on writing.
Then there's parallel innovation. It's a common trick to give beginning historical linguistics students a couple of words, say their meaning and let the students say, "Aha--cognates!" When they work out the sound correspondences they're all horribly wrong and they're in a muddle. You whisper "onomatopeia" at them and they blanch: Both languages copied an animal sound independently with similar results, the words are not sprung from a common source, at least not a common *human* source. You see animals come out of caves after hibernation. "Resurrection" isn't a stretch of an idea.
And finally consider the Slavic word for "carrot." Russian morkov', Polish marchiew, with various forms in other languages: all the evidence points to something like *murky or *murkhy; the problem being that you can't resolve the k/kh discrepancy within Slavic. People have tried to say that as it was borrowed from Slavic language to Slavic language it changed, but that solution fails. All the solutions saying they were borrowed from different source languages fail, as well, being utterly implausible and counter to what we know about how carrots spread into Europe. The best solution is uncomfortable--the Slavic languages differed slightly, in ways that were trivial to their development, and their speakers heard the word differently when borrowed from a single source language--one source, two different takes on the same word. So also there's no reason to say that, say, a given Babylonian and West Semitic narrative doesn't ultimately go back to a source that is neither Babylonian nor West Semitic. After all, we know a bit more than we did in the 1800s about the deep history of the area, and that Babylonia wasn't the first civilization to rise there, not by millennia.
None of this is novel to a linguist. I'm willing to bet that it's not novel to cultural anthropologists. But most discussions I've read concerning Xianity, esp. lay discussions, overlook these points. Perhaps because the certainty of the conclusion can't abide the doubt and uncertainty that these entail. Perhaps they've just never read outside their field.
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