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Have you ever noticed that apart from context, there is also a diachronic line in the Bible? I mean that apart from every quote belonging to a larger passage, those passages are also part of a larger development of ethics throughout the Bible.
As an example, I'd like to point out the emancipation of women in the Bible. In Genesis, women start out as their husbands' property. Then God emancipates them step by step. The first step is that Sarai becomes Sara: "my princess" turns into "princess". Before that change, Abram could "lend" his wife to a foreign lord. After the change, Abraham tries again, but God protects Sara: she was no longer Abraham's to lend.
Many developments later, we find Jesus telling Martha to get out of the kitchen: He wants her to be His disciple. And in a much-ignored passage, Paul greets Prisca as his colleague ("sunergetos") at the end of his letter to the Romans. Misogynists can pinpoint all those intermediary stages and say: "see, the Bible justifies that I subjugate my wife." But in reality, the Bible shows a clear favour for incremental emancipation of his wife. And coming after Jesus and Paul, that means nothing short of full equality for us.
Those homophobes inside and outside the church who pinpoint to specific quotes from the Pentateuch disregard all the developments from later Bible books. Developments like the gradual abolition of violent rebuttal ("turning the other cheek is part of that development). So even if a certain passage is "pretty clear", it still doesn't mean anything without its proper context. In addition, you need to ask if there is a diachronic development to take into account.
I often reproach (silently or otherwise) fellow Christians for disregarding those diachronic lines. Their blind spots lie at the root of many abuses in the church, like misogyny and homophobia.
And that is why I keep pointing out Leviticus 18:3, which ties all following verses to two places (Canaan and Egypt) and one time long before Christ. I believe this answers your second question as well. Inasmuch as a line can be derived from the paltry seven passages in the Bible regarding homosexual practices, ny tentative guess would be that 1) all regard practices of abuse: prostitution, rape, child abuse, cultic sex 2) monogamous relationships are not referred to (to judge them, extrapolate from Biblical referring to different-sex relationships) 3) in the Old Testament, violent rebuttal is still an option. The New Testament tells you to leave judgement to God (via the reference to the Kingdom of Heavens) This would invalidate any Leviticus incitements of violence against GLBT people, even if those words referred to them in general. But, as I have said time and again, I don't believe they do.
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