I don't want to pay $30 for it though. The Jennifer Viegas article leaves a lot to be desired. For example, I doubt that Hunter actually said '
these qualities are not related to pitch, but rather to the vibration and number of sound waves'. That doesn't make sense. Was he talking about frequency and amplitude? Is it the voice itself (timbre) or how it's used(melody, inflection, rhythm)?
Compare with the abstract :
In schizophrenia, auditory verbal hallucinations (AVHs) are likely to be perceived as gender-specific. Given that functional neuro-imaging correlates of AVHs involve multiple brain regions principally including auditory cortex, it is likely that those brain regions responsible for attribution of gender to speech are invoked during AVHs. We used functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and a paradigm utilising ‘gender-apparent’ (unaltered) and ‘gender-ambiguous’ (pitch-scaled) male and female voice stimuli to test the hypothesis that male and female voices activate distinct brain areas during gender attribution. The perception of female voices, when compared with male voices, affected greater activation of the right anterior superior temporal gyrus, near the superior temporal sulcus. Similarly, male voice perception activated the mesio-parietal precuneus area. These different gender associations could not be explained by either simple pitch perception or behavioural response because the activations that we observed were conjointly activated by both ‘gender-apparent’ and ‘gender-ambiguous’ voices. The results of this study demonstrate that, in the male brain, the perception of male and female voices activates distinct brain regions.
-The abstract calls "pitch-scaled" voice stimuli 'gender-ambiguous', yet also says that pitch perception has nothing to do with assigning gender to the stimuli. So how could the stimuli be considered gender-ambiguous?
In fact, a pitch-shifted male voice tends to remain easily identifiable as male whether the pitch is raised or lowered, while a pitch-shifted female voice tends to "becomes male" when lowered even less than an octave. But since this study is about the brain and not the difference between male and female voices,
-is it possible the activity in the brain is related to the concepts male and female?
-Were the subjects schizophrenic?
Maybe some more details will be available later.
Finally, I don't see how this study is remotely related to the value of listening to women. Maybe we shouldn't expect more from the MSM when they're reporting science than when they're reporting politics.
;)