|
Or to be more precise: Which state/action is comparable to interfering with a woman's decision whether or not to have an abortion?
I like babies and stuff, but let's look at it from the biological side: A fetus is a diploid life-form, partially genetic related to the diploid organism that nurtures it. Once it is born, it can evolve into a conscious human being.
Why aren't women having babies all the time? Because there are 3 questions that have to be answered, BEFORE a baby is born: 1. Is the mother (or an equivalent replacement) capable of physically caring for the baby? 2. Is the mother capable of handling the emotional pressure the baby will put on her? (e.g. if mother is a minor) 3. Is the mother capable of handling the emotional pressure the baby will indirectly cause? (e.g. in cases of rape, incest)
In my opinion, if one of those questions is answered with Yes, then the mother has a right to consider abortion. Now imagine a total stranger reserving the right to ignore those facts about her, claiming a blanket moral authority.
Let's put it again in biological terms: Person A reserves for itself the right to decide in which manner person B will handle its genetic heritage.
So what's the equivalent to that situation, if the gender-roles are interchanged?
If it is legal to regulate by law what a female may and may not do with her eggs and her uterus, then it is certainly legal to regulate what a male is allowed to do with his sperm, his penis and his testicles. Right?
* If it's immoral to destroy the potential life of a fetus, what about the potential life inherent in a sperm? * Let's make a law that forces males to look at baby-pictures of their children, before they decide to have a vasectomy. * Let's outlaw masturbation and coitus interruptus, so all that potential life won't be spoiled. * Let's make a law, which regulates which kinds of penis pumps and penis implants are morally acceptable. * Let a parliament decide, whether medication for erectile dysfunctions is morally acceptable. * Consider a female stealing a males semen and impregnating herself. If she leaves him right afterwards and her pregnancy has no economic or social consequences for him, is that morally acceptable?
If it is morally acceptable for males to make laws governing the female body, isn't it equally morally justified for females to make laws governing the male body?
|