I've been reading and posting to the
Women's Rights Forum for long enough to have a handle the general tides of opinion and debate here, and I've noticed a trend that I would like to discuss, with your collective indulgence.
Please don't flame me—I'm asking this question honestly and in sincere good faith.
Routinely (and hardly inappropriately!) an article or story or link will be posted detailing either some primitive male attitude or else a feminist critique of a regressive behavior by some subset of men. Soon thereafter someone, typically male, will post an objection along the lines of "not all men are like that," and someone else will quickly rebut that the article in question is speaking only of a certain group, so that men not of that group need not feel beseiged or insulted or misrepresented.
Sounds reasonable to me, to be honest. An article attacking, for example, a permissive male attitude re: rape is
not attacking
me, because
I do not hold that attitude; therefore I myself need not feel singled out by the article and can instead learn from it (which strikes me as the progressive thing to do in any case). Similarly, a portrayal of a subgroup of men as particularly sexist or violent or bigoted is not an attack upon men as a whole or upon any one man; it is in fact a portrayal of the subgroup.
However, it seems to me that a representation of a women or a subgroup of women is more readily taken as a commentary on women overall. That is, if a particular woman or subgroup of women is portrayed in some derogatory manner, then readers here will likely object to that portrayal as a negative and nonrepresentative stereotype. This is spelled out perhaps most explicitly in entry in
The Male Privilege Checklist posted some months back:
4. If I fail in my job or career, I can feel sure this won't be seen as a black mark against my entire sex's capabilities.
and its inclusion there is especially telling, considering that several males in this Forum reacted negatively to the perceived generalization of men and were quickly advised that the Checklist applies to
some but not
all.
In short, readers are required to construe a statement about one man as pertaining solely to that one man, but somehow a statement about a woman becomes a commentary on women in general. Sure, this is the
Women's Rights Forum, wherein certain protocols of communication are understood, but this phenomenon occurs on the whole of DU and elsewhere, and in any case I don't think that's a complete answer. If there were a dedicated "Men's Rights Forum" (not that one is needed), would an equivalent double-standard be tolerated?
What do you suppose is the source of this perceived One-Represents-Many attitude? Does the perception actually exist, or am I misinterpreting what I've read?
I would value your insights on this matter. Again, I'm not trying to start a shouting match, though naturally I encourage responses by people with strongly opposed views.
Thanks for your time and your thoughts.