|
Edited on Tue Mar-28-06 05:45 PM by Ignacio Upton
1. Why was the antebellum south considered to be more tolarent of the Irish than the north? I've read about Scarlett O'Hara being the daughter of an Irish immigrant, and I do know that some of the plantation owners here of Irish stock. The Knowing Nothing Party's southern swing also allowed for Catholics to join while the northern branch didn't. Did the tolarence of presence of already Catholic southern states like Louisania and Maryland (originally settled by Catholic Englishman, although it was majority Protestant by this time, it still had a large Irish Catholic population coming in) enable a degree of tolarance towards the Irish? Was the fact that blue collar industrial jobs that Irish Catholics had to compete for, less available due to slavery?
2. I can understand why the Irish were persecuted, given the historical dislike of the Irish Catholics that was ingrained into the minds of English or Protestant Orange Scots-Irish colonists. The Irish and Germans who came over before, during, and right after the Civil War were also stereotyped as poor, dirty, drunkards, in much the same way Hispanics are now for being "dirty." However, the Italians and Poles who immigrated a generation or tweo later, were considered part of a "seperate race" because they were from southern or Eastern Europe. How could the people who brought you Galaleo and DaVinci, or Corpernicous and Pulaski (a Polish cavalryman who fought with the Contintenal Army during the Revolutionary War, and has several counties in the south named after him) be deemed as inferior? The Italians and the Poles had already produced some of the greatest minds and soldiers from Europe, so the eugenics, WASP-supremacy crap doesn't make any sense.
|