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Being progressive, should we categorize any debate as "disgusting"?
Undoubtedly, this issue remains a very intriguing debate on many levels, and it is a debate which should – and must – progress at this time in our country. But to even begin examining the issues, I assert that we must first deconstruct the “Truths” we know about our societies by defining and examining common terms and concepts before we can even hope to initiate a fair and constructive exchange. Otherwise, we will all be caught hiding behind a curtain of relativism that will obscure our views. That being, our arguments will hinge upon premises (capitalism, property, rights, earnings) one must first believe and mindlessly accept before it can make any coherent sense at all (much like religion).
But first, we should ask, did he “Earn” it, and more importantly, what is “Earning”? I find it permissible to initially define earning as ‘the acquisition of property or capital by one's efforts or actions’. Well, we can most certainly agree that, besides any inherited property, he most certainly exchanged his ability to work for a monetary reward, which would meet this definition sufficiently by tautology. But this in itself does not necessarily place any inherent value on the concept of “Earning” (and such entitlement that may implicitly be derived from it).
To probe further, I must ask: could he have “earned” such money if there was no electrical power in the courtroom, if there were no workers to have built that courtroom, if there was not workers’ taxes used to pay for the courtroom’s construction and operation, if there were not police to ensure the order and security of the courtroom were in place, if there were not roads leading to that courtroom to allow him to get there, and importantly, if the companies he tried were not wealthy enough to pay damages he enjoyed a percentage of (and they were in fact wealthy from the labor of their employees). The conditions for Edwards to “earn” this money were sustained by the labor of ordinary, hard working Americans, who may have put in as many hours as he did, but earned significantly less than he did during this time period.
So how exactly can you universally quantify the value of labor, and justify how just two men who are working just as hard and who may be just as smart and in charge of the same amount of responsibilities can have a disparity in their income that may commonly be a difference by as much as a factor of 400 (especially when he who is earning so much more depends directly on the other’s labor to earn such)? Universally, from a rudimentary human context, you cannot. There is no universal equation to prove to anyone why John Edwards has “earned” a home that is at least 20 times as expensive and large as the average American’s.
It is only within a capitalistic system that you can create concepts to justify such a disparity. Edwards may have been gifted with a talent that was in high demand, but in short supply. Therefore, the market would bare a heavy load for his labor, and via capitalism, this may partially work to explain why he has “earned” such amount and may keep and enjoy such amount as he sees fit (but I guess if we recognize genetic gifts and opportunity as influences in life, this all begins to look more like a lottery). Further, we must also ignore the fact that many untalented people may find legacy pushing them into such high paying jobs, and many untalented people are also blessed with rather large trust funds. These two exceptions put a wrinkle into our idea of “earning” among the rich and their natural entitlement to spend it as they may.
But alas, we must agree that it is only within this not-so-shiny and not-so-perfect (from a philosophical standpoint) system of capitalism that John Edward’s has definitely “earned” this money (never mind the quantification of labor issue). And it is in the beauty of capitalism that such great people like Edwards can rise and flourish. You see, here we have system of labor controlled by the owners and supported by the labor of the ownerless—two classes of people who are separated by a long dark chasm. On one side, you see people live luxuriously, constantly profiting and ensuring their posterity a firm position in their class. On the other, you see people laboring from paycheck to paycheck, working just as hard and entrenching themselves further into their mundane and sometimes depraved position. It is quite an amazing system, isn’t it?
The problem with this approach is that we can really only live in a capitalistic system if most everyone agrees to do so and believes in it. But why would this poor working class agree to be taken advantage of, to be stomped on, abused, and to never be rewarded proportionally to their labor? Perhaps fear, perhaps security, maybe ignorance of their position, or maybe it simply gives them an opportunity to, if they can at least live comfortably, a chance to focus on what they enjoy (family, friends, recreation). And why would an upper class that seems to be obsessed with “more” be so generous as to grant the lower class enough to be comfortable? Well, firstly, they need them for productive labor, and secondly, they need them to be lawful and respect the concept of “property rights”. This is a symbiotic relationship between the two classes, where they are cooperatively extorting each other for what they both need (the rich need labor and order, and the poor need security and enough to be comfortable). Some people refer to this as a “social contract”.
So only if both parties are bound to this “social contract” can anyone “earn” and “possess” anything. Otherwise, for example, if I was not bound by such, I could take my neighbor’s car, despite the labor that he expressed to purchase such. So again, it is only by the workers’ consent that John Edwards could earn or retain any of the money or property that he has thus far. If the workers were to disagree, an army of them could storm his gates and take everything, including the doorknobs on his new large playhouse.
But nonetheless, these workers are not in arms, and they are not storming any property of the owners. Rather, they are respecting the “social contract” and respecting “property rights”. That is their end of the bargain, isn’t it? But what is John Edwards’ end?
I see so many people state, “He earned it” and “It’s his ‘right’ to spend it as he sees fit”. I assert that it is not his right to spend all of it as he sees fit at all, according to this very contract that he is grossly benefiting from. John Edwards must, in order to honor his end of the social contract, provide some tiny percentage of his earnings to the workers so that they may maintain the comfortable, secure living standard that they sacrificed “fairness” to make. In other words, he must sufficiently pacify the masses and meet their implicit threat of force with the minimal necessary. Otherwise, there is no “social contract” (it is in breach), there is no order, there is no respect of property rights, there is no security, and John Edwards would own nothing again (because the masses would take it with a vengeance).
Of course, Edwards can not specifically calculate and distribute accordingly on his own. It is an overall movement that his class must participate in to avoid anarchy. They must provide services, education, security, employment, health care, etc. In other words, they must provide “liberalism” in proportion to their excessive wealth or they face the threat of revolt from the labor class.
Suffice to say, I do not find that the upper-class, whether they “earn” it or inherit it, has an entitlement to spend as much as they want as they want, period. They may certainly spend a massive amount of this money, but must do so only in a way that there is a percentage left over to provide the basic services required and demanded by the workers. A failure to do so is clearly a breach of contract and a dissolution of their right to possess property.
In conclusion, John Edwards may have worked, and been given money in exchange for that (“earning”), but his job depending upon the labor of thousands of people who worked as hard and were not awarded proportionally for (outside of a capitalistic calculation). Further, he is not entitled to recklessly throw it all away on luxuries without breaching the very agreements that enabled him to profit in such a manner. Many would suggest we are already in a basic breach of our overall “social contract”, so spending such as this is just a further slap in the face of the laboring class that continues to loyally uphold their end.
The only reason I am bringing up these points, rather than if it is “right” or “wrong” is simply to inspire some of those who feel he has made no violation of capitalism to think beyond what is merely socially acceptable, and rather, focus on the very fabric those societies are built upon to see how such actions and thinking impacts everyone and the order.
Now in terms of this particular example being “right” or “wrong”, in my opinion, it does not matter because I have no answer. I cannot even define “excess” universally whatsoever or attempt to construct an argument based on such (you all need to decide individually if 20 times the cost and size of an average home is excessive). I do believe that “excess” is relative and somewhat personal. Further, I can guarantee you that to me, in my tiny worldview, this is absolutely “excessive”. With that said, in terms of politics, voting, etc…wouldn’t it be hard for me to support a man who makes a choice I judge too “excessive” to be able to relate to my people, my class and our problems?
Of course, I doubt I am swaying any opinion of the “Go Edwards” or the “Go Capitalism” crowd, but that is how things go…
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