with human flu mixed with live bird flu. Scientifically speaking, if some people were injected with this, and then picked up the other flus could this account for the "new" combination we are seeing? They have a plant in Mexico, they have shown that they will hide the truth as they did in 2005 with the HIV contaminated injectable for hemophiliacs.
Why does everyone assume that they really did re-call all the contaminated shots, especially as this pandemic started around the same time. The news reports will go so far as to say that IF the two flus had mixed it could have caused a pandemic, now 2-3 months later we almost do, and no one is asking could it have happened and we have a cover their ass moment?
Could there have been contamination going on before this incident came to light? Baxter let contaminated injectables continue being shipped to Spain and France AFTER the FDA told them to halt distribution in the USA. They have opportunity and motive, why are they above suspicion? I really want a scientific answer for why this is so impossible that no one will entertain the question.
I wish a scientist would read the story and tell me why this is not a probable cause. Especially as people died in Mexico but not here. There has been no cohesive story about why, so in my mind the obvious question is —Was there an outside source of the virus that has then been diluted as it was transmitted person to person?
Here is the story in the Toronto Sun:
http://www.torontosun.com/news/canada/2009/02/27/8560781.html(ignore the comments that lead to sites that get carried away by sourcing sites that always get thrown in the dungeon. The story is true, the conspiracy theories are just speculation and not actual translations from the czech papers. I translated them and they are NOT suspicious—I wish they were, but they are not.)