Another poster on the "Iran is wrong" thread posted something interesting. Apparently, the West has tried to enter into a "prisoner swap" with the Iranians -- the seized Iranian diplomats/terrorists from Northern Iraq, who are still being held apparently -- in exchange for the Royal Marines recently taken into custody.
U.S. Is Holding Iranians Seized in Raids in Iraq IRAN: GOVERNMENT RULES OUT PRISONER SWAP FOR SEIZED BRITONSAssuming that the U.S. made such overtures (and it likley explored this through diplomatic channels), does this show that the U.S. and the West may view the two seizures as equivalent? In effect, wouldn't this constitute an implied admission that its actions were in some ways equivalent to those of the Iranians?
One response was that the offer was refused by the Iranians, and the implication being that it was done so in bad faith. But was the offer refused by Iran based on the fact that Iran does not view the two as equivalent, perhaps one being "diplomats" as opposed to uniformed military personnel?
What implications does this have for a statement such as "Iran is wrong" without including the larger context of others who are "wrong"? If both the U.S. and Iran are both "wrong," then claiming that those pointing this out are in some sense "apologizing" for Iran is not accurate at all, is it? What about cause and effect in these circumstances?
Rather, wouldn't those pointing this out be more accurately characterizing the larger context in which these events are unfolding, and all of this in contradiction to the over-simplified, sound-bite, "us and them" corporate media depiction?
Finally, is the U.K. the only what not "wrong," but caught in the middle in all of this?